Ferrum Angel
08-03-2005, 10:52 AM
I have a quick question about a situation that occurred in our most recent game, and would like a little clarification on the rules.
According to my reading of the rules, if someone has scripted an Obfuscation in a volley, that person will go first.
For example:
Joe Blowhard has scripted "obfuscate" as his action in volley three, and his opponent, Bill Bully has scripted "incite."
For that volley, Blowhard goes first, and the two players roll a versus test for oratory, persuasion, or whatever else they're using to argue. If Blowhard wins that test, Bully doesn't even get to try his incite, because he's lost his action for this volley (I don't have my rule books in front of me here at work, but if I'm remembering things right, some other sort of penalty occurs later).
Now, if Blowhard fails his obfuscation, does this mean that Bully gets to make his roll for incite? Also, could I assume that the bonus Bully gets from Blowhard's failure will be applied to Bully's vicious verbal assault?
Thanks!
According to my reading of the rules, if someone has scripted an Obfuscation in a volley, that person will go first.
For example:
Joe Blowhard has scripted "obfuscate" as his action in volley three, and his opponent, Bill Bully has scripted "incite."
For that volley, Blowhard goes first, and the two players roll a versus test for oratory, persuasion, or whatever else they're using to argue. If Blowhard wins that test, Bully doesn't even get to try his incite, because he's lost his action for this volley (I don't have my rule books in front of me here at work, but if I'm remembering things right, some other sort of penalty occurs later).
Now, if Blowhard fails his obfuscation, does this mean that Bully gets to make his roll for incite? Also, could I assume that the bonus Bully gets from Blowhard's failure will be applied to Bully's vicious verbal assault?
Thanks!