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View Full Version : Obfuscation in a Duel of Wits



Ferrum Angel
08-03-2005, 10:52 AM
I have a quick question about a situation that occurred in our most recent game, and would like a little clarification on the rules.

According to my reading of the rules, if someone has scripted an Obfuscation in a volley, that person will go first.

For example:

Joe Blowhard has scripted "obfuscate" as his action in volley three, and his opponent, Bill Bully has scripted "incite."

For that volley, Blowhard goes first, and the two players roll a versus test for oratory, persuasion, or whatever else they're using to argue. If Blowhard wins that test, Bully doesn't even get to try his incite, because he's lost his action for this volley (I don't have my rule books in front of me here at work, but if I'm remembering things right, some other sort of penalty occurs later).

Now, if Blowhard fails his obfuscation, does this mean that Bully gets to make his roll for incite? Also, could I assume that the bonus Bully gets from Blowhard's failure will be applied to Bully's vicious verbal assault?

Thanks!

luke
08-03-2005, 11:20 AM
Hey,

your reading is correct. Obfuscate, if successful, blocks the current opposed action. The bonus, however, should be applied to the next action, not the current action.

-L

Tet
08-03-2005, 03:19 PM
Related to the above, Blowhard and Bully roll their opposed roll for obfuscate and tie. Ties go to the defender so the obfuscate fails.

Now I also don't have my books on me (curses for taking them out of my car!) but, does Bully still get a bonus next round because obfuscate failed, or are no bonuses awarded to anyone since the roll itself was a tie and therefore no win or lose conditions apply?

zabieru
09-01-2005, 01:44 AM
Obfuscate failed, so the winner gets his 1d. Saying that ties go to the defender is the same as saying that in the event of a tie, the defender wins, meaning the attacker lost.